The following "Question" was asked by a member of the congregation at Grace Community Church in Panorama City, California, and "Answered" by their pastor, John MacArthur Jr. It was transcribed from the tape, GC 70-19, titled "Bible Questions and Answers."  A copy of the tape can be obtained by writing, Word of Grace, P.O. Box 4000, Panorama City, CA 91412 or by dialing toll free 1-800-55-GRACE. Copyright 2000 by John MacArthur Jr., All Rights Reserved.

Question

In II Samuel, chapter 24, verses 1 and thereafter (about 5 or 6), it would almost seem as though God is prompting David to sin with respect to the taking of an inventory of his army and his troops. And, of course, in a footnote in the NIV, it says that God did not cause him to sin, which is true: everybody has free will. But, if it was to reveal his sinful nature--I’m assuming--if that be the case, would it not have come about regardless of whether God prompted him with the quote where it says, “Go and take a census of Israel and Judah” and yet that’s clearly contrary… Because of pride--it almost seems as though He’s prompting him to do such…if I haven’t muddied the waters by the question.

Answer

Well, no. And this is a question that has been asked and it comes up very often. The bigger context, has to be an understanding that God is “of purer eyes,” Habakkuk 1, “than to behold evil, cannot look upon iniquity.” Further, that God is “holy, holy, holy.” Further, James 1, “God tempts no man.” And that’s explicit. So, the larger context is to understand that God doesn’t tempt people. Now, the answer to your question comes--and you’re talking about II Samuel 24, “the anger of the Lord was aroused against Israel and He moved David against them to say, ‘Go and number Israel and Judah’.” But, there is a comparative passage--did you note I Chronicles 21:1? I Chronicles 21:1 records the same account with these words, “Now Satan stood up against Israel and moved David to number Israel.” So, in Samuel, you have the Lord aroused against Israel, and it appears as though He moves David. But, in I Chronicles 21, the Holy Spirit has inspired the writer to tell us that it was only God who sovereignly permitted this to happen, but it was actually Satan who did the inciting. That is consistent with the bigger picture. The bigger picture is that God must allow sinful things. If He didn’t allow them, none of them would happen, right? So, God for His own purposes, allows things.

In the little note that I wrote in the study Bible, “II Samuel 24:1 reports that it was God who moved David. This apparent discrepancy is resolved by understanding that God sovereignly and permissively uses Satan to activate or achieve His purposes. God uses Satan” and I give a whole lot of different ways David’s census brought tragedy and that tragedy, in effect, was the judgment of God. So, God, sovereignly, comes to a point where he is prepared to judge Israel. He allows Satan to incite the action on the part of David that brings about that judgment. So, I think you have to compare I Samuel 21 and the bigger picture that God does not tempt, that God does not incite people to evil--that would be against His holy nature--but within the bigger picture, God allows Satan, as He did in the case of Job, to affect certain purposes, which, for His own glory, achieve His purposes.

Added to Bible Bulletin Board's "MacArthur’s Questions and Answers" by:

Tony Capoccia
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